Because in essence the capitalist receives compensation for the work of many workers, yes? And the capitalist heterosexual housewife receives compensation for the sexual and domestic labor of many women, from her husband’s paycheck receives her compensation, and she receives an unjustly large amount, just as a proletarian heterosexual housewife receives a portion of her husband’s paycheck, and receives a small amount, and I believe this is in part because as the capitalist is paid for the value created by many workers, the capitalist wife is paid for an amount of domestic and sexual labor one worker could not do, she is paid for the work essentially of many “wives”, she is paid for the surplus created by the housecleaners, sex workers, beauty support workers, childcare workers and so on, I’m not sure if this is the exact explanation or perfectly theoretically correct but I think I have a point… there’s something there.in the way second shift labor is done in bourgeois households.
I think applications of labor theory to the domestic sphere are useful and important for understanding the condition of women
Thoughts From The Peacock Angel 